a nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mgdl which manifestation should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.

4. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.

5. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients on warfarin therapy need to have their International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like clotting or bleeding. Option A is incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables can affect INR levels due to their vitamin K content. Option B is incorrect as grapefruit juice is not a significant concern with warfarin. Option D is important for medication adherence but does not specifically address the monitoring aspect required for warfarin therapy.

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