Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client's readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. "I can concentrate best in the morning."
• B. "It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home."
• C. "I'm wondering why I need to learn this."
• D. "You will have to talk to my partner about this."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "You will have to talk to my partner about this." This response indicates that the client is willing to involve their partner in the learning process, showing readiness to take responsibility and engage in the education. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate potential barriers to learning: A indicates a preference for learning time but does not show active involvement, B focuses on external factors hindering learning, and C reflects a lack of understanding or motivation for the learning.

2. When should a critical pathway be revised?

• A. When variances show a new trend.
• B. When the variances show a new trend.
• C. When a member of the team retires.
• D. When the client leaves the hospital.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.

3. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

• A. Recency error
• B. Leniency error
• C. Halo error
• D. Absolute judgment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

4. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath.
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Test the client's swallowing ability by providing thickened liquids.
• D. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

5. Which of the following is an example of an effective conflict resolution strategy?

• A. Ignoring the conflict
• B. Assigning blame to one party
• C. Encouraging open communication
• D. Enforcing strict rules

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging open communication is an effective conflict resolution strategy because it promotes transparency, understanding, and collaboration among individuals involved in the conflict. By encouraging open communication, parties can express their perspectives, concerns, and needs, leading to the identification of common ground and potential solutions. This approach fosters a positive and constructive environment for resolving conflicts and can help prevent misunderstandings and escalation of issues. Choices A, B, and D are not effective conflict resolution strategies. Ignoring the conflict can lead to unresolved issues, assigning blame can escalate tensions and hinder problem-solving, and enforcing strict rules may not address the underlying causes of the conflict or promote mutual understanding.

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