Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

2. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse educator?

• A. Provide direct patient care
• B. Conduct research on nursing practices
• C. Develop and implement educational programs for nursing staff
• D. Supervise nursing staff

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The role of a nurse educator primarily involves developing and implementing educational programs for nursing staff. While providing direct patient care and supervising nursing staff are essential functions in healthcare, these tasks are not the primary responsibilities of a nurse educator. Conducting research on nursing practices is typically associated with the role of a nurse researcher, not a nurse educator.

3. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
• B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
• C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
• D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

4. For a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements, which goal is most important?

• A. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%.
• B. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss.
• C. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.
• D. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important goal for a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and imbalanced nutrition due to more than body requirements is to reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal directly addresses the management of diabetes and is crucial in preventing complications associated with high blood sugar levels. Choice B focuses on weight loss, which may be beneficial but is not as critical as controlling blood sugar levels. Choice C, distributing calories throughout the day, is important for glycemic control but not as immediate as reaching a target HbA1c level. Choice D, stating the reasons for eliminating simple sugars, is a good educational goal but not as urgent as achieving glycemic control.

5. Which of the following describes the ability to enter into a contract with an employer?

• A. Certification to contract
• B. Certification to represent
• C. Bargaining agreement
• D. Contract agreement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Certification to contract,' which refers to the process by which a union, certified by the NLRB as a bargaining agent, can enter into a contract with an employer that has been voted on by the union membership. The other choices are incorrect because 'Certification to represent' does not specifically address entering into a contract, 'Bargaining agreement' refers to the actual agreement reached through negotiation, and 'Contract agreement' is redundant, as it simply repeats the term 'contract.'

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