Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Increased temperature
• B. Absent breath sounds
• C. Productive cough
• D. Incisional discomfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most commonly associated with this condition?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are commonly associated with left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Left-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli, which results in the characteristic crackling sound upon auscultation.

3. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse. Which nutritional information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA)

• A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
• B. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea.
• C. Have about six small meals a day.
• D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, it's important to consider the impact of nutrition on respiratory function. Eating high-fiber foods can lead to increased gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Therefore, it is advisable for clients with COPD to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent these issues. Resting before meals can help manage dyspnea, and having smaller, more frequent meals can prevent bloating. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment in COPD patients. Additionally, limiting carbohydrate intake is crucial as it can increase carbon dioxide production, leading to a higher risk of acidosis in these individuals.

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