Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring blood pressure
• B. Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Assessing for signs of bleeding
• D. Measuring calf circumference

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing for signs of bleeding is the priority when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving heparin therapy. Heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding complications, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial to ensure patient safety and timely intervention if needed.

2. The client is prescribed a long-acting beta2 agonist and expresses concerns about the cost, stating they only use the inhaler during asthma attacks. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain the importance of using the inhaler daily to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. Suggest identifying community services to help with the cost and encourage daily use of the inhaler.
• C. Explore the client's fears regarding breathlessness.
• D. Emphasize the necessity of using this inhaler daily and discuss potential community services for financial assistance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response should address the client's concern about the cost of using the inhaler daily. While emphasizing the importance of daily use is crucial, it is also essential to acknowledge and offer support for the financial burden. Identifying community resources can help the client access affordable medications. Exploring fears related to breathlessness does not directly address the client's financial concerns.

3. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Albuterol (Proventil)
• B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
• C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• D. Fluticasone (Flovent)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.

4. A client who received benzocaine spray before a recent bronchoscopy presents with continuous cyanosis despite oxygen therapy. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer albuterol treatment.
• B. Notify Rapid Response Team.
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses.
• D. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy suggests methemoglobinemia, an adverse effect of benzocaine spray. Methemoglobinemia can lead to death if not managed promptly. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate advanced care. Administering albuterol would not address the underlying cause of cyanosis. Assessing peripheral pulses and obtaining cultures are not the priority as they do not directly address the urgent need to manage methemoglobinemia.

5. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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