Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
• B. Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
• C. Apply elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury.
• D. Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.

3. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer opioids routinely for chronic pain.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness.
• D. Avoid physical activity to prevent joint damage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with osteoarthritis is to apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness. Heat application helps improve circulation, relax muscles, and reduce discomfort in joints affected by osteoarthritis. Administering opioids routinely (Choice A) is not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis and carries risks of dependency and side effects. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) may lead to muscle weakness and reduced joint flexibility. Avoiding physical activity altogether (Choice D) can lead to further joint stiffness and compromised overall health.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• B. Pink-tinged urine
• C. Small blood clots in the urine
• D. Blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presence of small blood clots in the urine is an expected finding after a TURP due to the surgical manipulation of the prostate bed and the bladder. However, larger clots can indicate excessive bleeding and should be reported promptly. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range for post-TURP clients, indicating adequate kidney perfusion. Pink-tinged urine is also normal after a TURP due to minor bleeding from the surgical site. A blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting.

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