Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

2. A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increase the dose of haloperidol.
• B. Administer benztropine.
• C. Administer naloxone.
• D. Monitor blood pressure before administering the next dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL.
• B. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. WBC count of 6,500/mm3.
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.

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