a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for clients receiving heparin, indicating a potential need for dosage adjustment. Platelet count (choice A) within normal range, aPTT (choice B) within therapeutic range, and hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to the monitoring of heparin therapy and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.

5. What is the most important nursing action when a patient has a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing action when a patient has a central line is to monitor for infection. Central line-associated bloodstream infections are a serious complication that can lead to severe outcomes. Monitoring for infection involves assessing the patient for signs and symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. While monitoring the central line dressing, redness, and swelling are also important aspects of care, they are secondary to monitoring for infection as the primary focus should be on preventing serious complications.

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