Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• B. aPTT of 50 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 14 g/dL
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for clients receiving heparin, indicating a potential need for dosage adjustment. Platelet count (choice A) within normal range, aPTT (choice B) within therapeutic range, and hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to the monitoring of heparin therapy and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Heart rate of 68/min.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

3. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Heightened perceptual field
• C. Rapid speech
• D. Purposeless activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
• B. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
• D. I will take this medication at the same time each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Pasta
• C. Spinach
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

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