Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• B. aPTT of 50 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 14 g/dL
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for clients receiving heparin, indicating a potential need for dosage adjustment. Platelet count (choice A) within normal range, aPTT (choice B) within therapeutic range, and hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to the monitoring of heparin therapy and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
• D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Increased serum sodium
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

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