a nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.

2. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which of the following clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A client with gout who plans to continue consuming anchovies should be referred to a dietitian for proper dietary education. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate dietitian referral as the statements made by these clients are appropriate actions regarding their prescribed medications (warfarin and spinach intake, spironolactone and potassium intake, and calcium carbonate and water intake, respectively).

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

5. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

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