ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
- B. Heart rate of 88/min.
- C. Wound drainage of 25 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Abdominal distention and rigidity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention and rigidity may indicate a postoperative complication, such as bowel obstruction or peritonitis, and should be reported to the provider. While monitoring urine output, heart rate, and wound drainage are essential postoperative assessments, they are not as concerning as abdominal distention and rigidity, which could signal a more urgent issue requiring immediate attention.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 30 seconds
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following the application of a cast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Place an ice pack over the cast
- B. Palpate the pulse distal to the cast
- C. Teach the client to keep the cast clean and dry
- D. Position the casted extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Palpating the pulse distal to the cast is the priority as it assesses for circulation. Ensuring adequate blood flow is essential to prevent complications such as compartment syndrome. Placing an ice pack over the cast could cause constriction of blood vessels, further compromising circulation. Teaching the client about cast care and positioning the casted extremity on a pillow are important but do not take precedence over assessing circulation.
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