Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

2. A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?

• A. Tell me about your siblings
• B. Tell me what kind of music you like
• C. Tell me how often you drink alcohol
• D. Tell me about your school schedule

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about alcohol intake is crucial in assessing the client's risk factors and behaviors, especially in the context of a suicide threat. Understanding alcohol consumption patterns can help the nurse evaluate potential substance abuse issues and their impact on the client's mental health. Choices A, B, and D are less pertinent to the immediate concern of assessing suicide risk and conduct disorder symptoms.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Verify the client's allergy status before administering the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.
• D. Check the client's skin for any rashes before administering the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.

4. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
• B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
• C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
• D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

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