a nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

2. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught self-administration of insulin by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region. This practice helps reduce the risk of lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by fatty tissue changes due to repeated insulin injections in the same spot. By rotating sites, the client ensures better insulin absorption and prevents localized skin changes. Injecting air into the vial before withdrawing insulin (Choice A) is unnecessary and not recommended. Drawing up short-acting insulin before long-acting insulin (Choice B) is not a standard practice and can lead to errors in dosing. Storing unopened insulin vials in the freezer (Choice C) is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness.

4. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.

5. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

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