Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Chest pain
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with generalized anxiety disorder commonly exhibit symptoms like excessive worry, restlessness, and difficulty concentrating. Physical manifestations such as muscle tension and sleep disturbances are also prevalent. Shortness of breath and chest pain are more commonly associated with panic attacks rather than generalized anxiety disorder. Decreased appetite may be present in some cases, but excessive worry is a hallmark characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder.

2. Which is an example of the ego defense mechanism of regression?

• A. A mother blames the teacher for her child's failure in school.
• B. A teenager becomes hysterical after seeing a friend killed in a car accident.
• C. A woman wants to marry a man exactly like her beloved father.
• D. An adult throws a temper tantrum when he does not get his own way.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development for comfort. In this case, an adult throwing a temper tantrum is regressing to a childlike behavior when faced with not getting their way, which is a form of seeking comfort associated with earlier development. Choices A, B, and C do not exemplify regression. Blaming the teacher, becoming hysterical after a traumatic event, or seeking a partner similar to a beloved father are not instances of reverting to earlier developmental stages to cope with stress or conflict.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?

• A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
• B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
• C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
• D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.

5. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy sessions.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety.
• C. Encourage the client to limit caffeine intake.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.

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