a nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin which of the following findings should the nurse report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

5. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

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