a nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40min the client is diaphoretic and has chest pain which of the following medications should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

2. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.

3. A patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment can help reduce the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution into the colon, allowing the patient to tolerate the procedure better. Increasing the flow of the solution (Choice A) can exacerbate the cramping. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) or stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not address the issue and could lead to incomplete treatment.

4. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

5. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.

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