ATI RN
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A
1. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dysphagia
- C. Agitation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.
2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
- D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.
3. A client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system needs to be transported to the x-ray department. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube prior to transferring the client to a wheelchair.
- B. Disconnect the chest tube from the drainage system during transport.
- C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times.
- D. Empty the collection chamber prior to transport.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When transporting a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system, it is crucial to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times. This positioning prevents the backflow of drainage into the client's chest, reducing the risk of complications. Clamping the chest tube, disconnecting it from the drainage system, or emptying the collection chamber are incorrect actions and can potentially harm the client or lead to complications.
4. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer pain medication as ordered.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
5. When a client develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer the abdominal thrust maneuver
- C. Turn the client to the side
- D. Perform a blind finger sweep
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops an airway obstruction and remains conscious, the nurse's initial action should be to administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This technique, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Inserting an oral airway, turning the client to the side, or performing a blind finger sweep are not recommended as the first interventions for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction.
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