Nursing Elites

1. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Agitation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following surgical repair of a mandibular fracture with fixed occlusion of the jaws in a closed position. Which of the following statements is the priority for the nurse to make?

• A. "We can teach you some relaxation techniques to minimize your pain."
• B. "Keep wire cutters with you at all times."
• C. "Use a water pick device to keep your teeth clean."
• D. "Consume a high-protein, liquid diet."

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?

• A. 300 mL
• B. 480 mL
• C. 800 mL
• D. 950 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tidal volume is the amount of air delivered with each breath during mechanical ventilation. A common formula used to calculate tidal volume is 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the expected tidal volume would be 60 kg x 6-8 mL/kg = 360-480 mL. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is 480 mL (Option B), which falls within the expected range based on the client's weight.

4. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

5. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
• B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
• C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
• D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

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