Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

3. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

4. A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for the presence of bowel sounds every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the NG tube every 24 hours.
• C. Provide the client with sips of water every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?

• A. Match the client's identification band with the number on the blood unit
• B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
• C. Ask the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation
• D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.

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