Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Massage the uterus every 4 hours.
• C. Apply ice packs to the perineum.
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

4. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

• A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
• B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
• C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
• D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 30 seconds
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.

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