Nursing Elites

1. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
• C. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag.
• D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with low blood glucose needs immediate assessment to ensure that the orange juice has corrected the hypoglycemia. Monitoring the effectiveness of the intervention for low blood glucose is the priority. The other options, such as a client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour, a client with fluid remaining in the IV bag, and a client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not require immediate assessment like the client with low blood glucose.

2. What should a healthcare professional do when they observe signs of phlebitis in a client receiving IV fluids?

• A. Apply a cold compress
• B. Notify the physician immediately
• C. Apply a warm compress
• D. Administer anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When signs of phlebitis are observed in a client receiving IV fluids, the appropriate action is to apply a warm compress. This helps to reduce discomfort and swelling at the site of the IV insertion. Applying a cold compress may not be as effective in this case and could potentially worsen the condition. While notifying the physician is important, providing immediate comfort to the client through a warm compress is the initial recommended intervention. Administering anti-inflammatory medication should only be done under the direction of a healthcare provider after assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

4. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
• B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

5. A nurse is caring for a client post-op with a chest tube. What should the nurse check for regularly?

• A. Ensure the chest tube is periodically clamped
• B. Check for air leaks in the tubing
• C. Keep the client in a prone position for chest drainage
• D. Administer diuretics to prevent fluid buildup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing. Air leaks can compromise the function of the chest tube, leading to inadequate drainage and potentially causing complications for the client. Clamping the chest tube periodically is incorrect as it could lead to a buildup of fluid or air in the pleural space. Keeping the client in a prone position is not necessary for chest drainage, as the positioning may vary depending on the specific situation. Administering diuretics may not be directly related to monitoring the chest tube for proper function and is not a routine intervention for chest tube management post-op.

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