a nurse has just received change of shift report for four clients which of the following clients should the nurse assess first
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with low blood glucose needs immediate assessment to ensure that the orange juice has corrected the hypoglycemia. Monitoring the effectiveness of the intervention for low blood glucose is the priority. The other options, such as a client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour, a client with fluid remaining in the IV bag, and a client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not require immediate assessment like the client with low blood glucose.

2. What is the most important intervention for a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these underlying causes can help resolve delirium. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) can worsen delirium by further altering mental status. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is helpful to manage delirium symptoms, but it is not the most important intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated in delirium as it can exacerbate confusion and agitation.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

4. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.

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