Nursing Elites

1. A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?

• A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours
• B. . Anxiety-induced hyperventilation
• C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Begin the prescribed infusion via the new access
• B. Ensure an x-ray is completed to confirm placement.
• C. Check medication calculations with a second RN.
• D. Make sure the solution is appropriate for a central line

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patient's plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patient's health?

• A. Nutritional status
• B. Potassium balance
• C. Calcium balance
• D. Fluid volume status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the specific gravity in a patient with SIADH helps the nurse evaluate the patient's fluid volume status. Specific gravity indicates the concentration of solutes in the urine and can detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or excess. Nutritional status, potassium balance, and calcium balance are not directly assessed through specific gravity testing. Nutritional status is typically evaluated through dietary intake and anthropometric measurements. Potassium balance is assessed through blood tests and ECG monitoring. Calcium balance is evaluated through blood tests and bone density scans. Therefore, the correct answer is assessing fluid volume status through specific gravity testing.

5. The renin and angiotensin systems help to maintain the balance of sodium and water in the body. What other functions do these systems serve?

• A. Regulating hemoglobin levels
• B. Maintaining a healthy blood volume
• C. Releasing platelets when tissues are injured
• D. Lowering blood volumes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a healthy blood volume. The renin and angiotensin systems not only help to regulate sodium and water balance in the body but also play a crucial role in maintaining an adequate blood volume. This is essential for normal blood pressure regulation and overall cardiovascular health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin levels are primarily regulated by the bone marrow and erythropoietin, platelets are released in response to blood vessel injury by a different mechanism, and the systems do not focus on lowering blood volumes but rather on maintaining them.

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