ATI RN
ATI Fluid and Electrolytes
1. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?
- A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. . Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula
- B. Apply a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth.
- C. Administer 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously.
- D. Administer 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
3. . A nurse assesses a client who had an intraosseous catheter placed in the left leg. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern?
- A. The catheter has been in place for 20 hours.
- B. . The client has poor vascular access in the upper extremities.
- C. The catheter is placed in the proximal tibia.
- D. The clients left lower extremity is cool to the touch.
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenous push
- B. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W
- C. Mechanical ventilation
- D. Indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
5. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
- A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
- B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
- C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
- D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access