a male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects what is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

2. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

3. A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoke cigarettes. Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, especially when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Choice A, being diabetic, does not directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice C, having a history of hypertension, is not a primary risk factor for thrombophlebitis. Choice D, being older than 40, is not the most likely factor associated with an increased risk of thrombophlebitis in patients taking estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives.

4. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

5. A 45-year-old woman has been prescribed conjugated estrogens (Premarin) for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid smoking while taking this medication' because patients taking conjugated estrogens should avoid smoking due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration is a good practice but not specifically related to conjugated estrogens. Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia is not a specific teaching point for conjugated estrogens.

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