Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

2. A group of nursing students at Nurseslabs University is currently learning about family violence. Which of the following is true about the topic mentioned?

• A. Family violence affects every socioeconomic level.
• B. Family violence is caused by drugs and alcohol abuse.
• C. Family violence predominantly occurs in lower socioeconomic levels.
• D. Family violence rarely occurs during pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Family violence affects individuals across all socioeconomic levels. Family violence is not limited to any specific socioeconomic level; it can happen in any family, regardless of their economic status. Choice B is incorrect because while substance abuse can contribute to family violence, it is not the sole cause. Choice C is incorrect as family violence can occur in families from all socioeconomic backgrounds. Choice D is incorrect as family violence can indeed occur during pregnancy, posing serious risks to both the mother and the unborn child.

3. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

• A. Ferritin
• B. Gastric enzymes
• C. Intrinsic factor
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

4. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

5. After experiencing several months of worsening nocturia, a patient has been assessed for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and has begun drug treatment. In addition to nocturia, what other sign or symptom is most likely to accompany BPH?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Erectile dysfunction
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hematuria. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is a common sign associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). It can occur due to irritation or damage to the prostate tissue. While urinary frequency and erectile dysfunction can also be seen in BPH patients, hematuria is more specifically linked to prostate issues. Flank pain is not typically a direct symptom of BPH.

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