Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

2. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

3. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

• A. Vaccination against the disease
• B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
• C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
• D. Having the disease in question

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

5. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may increase the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may decrease the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.

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