ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023
1. What is a major feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for the treatment of high blood cholesterol?
- A. Avoiding all foods that contain cholesterol
- B. Reducing sodium intake to less than 2 g/day
- C. Limiting total fat intake to less than 30% of energy intake
- D. Limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7% of energy intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7% of energy intake.' This is a central feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for treating high blood cholesterol. Saturated fats can increase low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, a significant risk factor for heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because while it is recommended to limit cholesterol intake, it's not suggested to avoid all foods containing cholesterol entirely in the TLC. Choice B is also incorrect as although reducing sodium intake is beneficial for controlling blood pressure, it's not specifically targeted in the TLC for managing high cholesterol. Lastly, while limiting total fat intake is a healthy guideline, it's not as specific or effective as limiting saturated fat intake, making choice C also incorrect.
2. During the first six months of lactation, a breastfeeding mother is advised to consume how many extra kcalories per day to meet energy needs?
- A. 250
- B. 330
- C. 400
- D. 470
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A breastfeeding mother is advised to consume an additional 330 kcalories per day during the first six months to support milk production and meet increased energy needs.
3. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?
- A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
- B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
- C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
- D. Edema due to increased urine production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.
4. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
5. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who practices Hinduism. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following foods is prohibited according to Hindu dietary practices?
- A. Pork
- B. Chicken
- C. Beef
- D. Seafood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Hindu dietary practices, beef is prohibited due to religious beliefs. Hindus consider cows to be sacred animals, and therefore consuming beef is strictly forbidden. Pork, chicken, and seafood are not prohibited in Hindu dietary practices, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
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