Nursing Elites

1. Generally, lifestyle-related diseases share common risk factors. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

• A. Physical activity
• B. Smoking
• C. Genetics
• D. Nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common risk factors for lifestyle-related diseases typically include aspects of one's lifestyle that can be modified or controlled, such as physical activity, smoking habits, and nutrition. These factors can be changed to prevent or manage lifestyle-related diseases. Genetics, on the other hand, is not a modifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be changed or controlled. Therefore, it is not considered a common risk factor for lifestyle-related diseases. Understanding the modifiable risk factors for these diseases allows for better prevention and management strategies, and helps reduce the risk of complications.

2. A client is being taught how to follow a low-purine diet for gout management. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. "I will need to limit the number of fruit servings each day."?
• B. "I should avoid eating liver and other organ meats."?
• C. "I can drink only white wine."?
• D. "I should choose red meat instead of poultry."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Organ meats like liver are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choosing to avoid such foods is essential in following a low-purine diet. Option A is incorrect because fruits are generally low in purines and are not usually restricted in a low-purine diet. Option C is incorrect as white wine, just like other types of alcohol, should be consumed in moderation or avoided due to its purine content. Option D is incorrect because red meat, including beef and lamb, is high in purines and should be limited in a low-purine diet.

3. A caregiver is teaching a parent about recommended protein intake for a toddler. Which of the following food selections is equivalent to 1 oz of protein?

• A. 2 tbsp peanut butter
• B. ½ cup peas
• C. 1 slice of bread
• D. 1 scrambled egg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One scrambled egg is equivalent to 1 oz of protein, making it a suitable choice for a toddler's diet. A ½ cup of peas (choice B) does not provide 1 oz of protein but is still a good source of protein. 2 tbsp of peanut butter (choice A) contains more than 1 oz of protein. 1 slice of bread (choice C) typically provides less protein than 1 oz.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. Hct 43%
• B. WBC 8,000/uL
• C. Albumin 4.2 g/dL
• D. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.

5. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be associated with increased risk of macular degeneration?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B12
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin E is an antioxidant that helps protect eye health and prevent macular degeneration.

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