Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider writes a medication order that seems excessively high for the patient's condition. What is the nurse's first step?

• A. Administer the medication immediately.
• B. Hold the medication and consult the provider.
• C. Reduce the dose without consulting the provider.
• D. Administer the medication after double-checking with another nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step for the nurse when encountering a medication order that appears excessively high for the patient's condition is to hold the medication and consult the provider. Administering the medication immediately (Choice A) without clarification could pose a risk to the patient's safety. Reducing the dose without consulting the provider (Choice C) is not recommended as it may lead to suboptimal treatment. Administering the medication after double-checking with another nurse (Choice D) is not sufficient; consulting the provider directly is crucial to ensure the accuracy and safety of the medication order.

2. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

3. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?

• A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
• B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
• C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
• D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.

4. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?

• A. Lemon sherbet
• B. Milkshake
• C. Vanilla ice cream
• D. Grape juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

• A. Sheepskin heel pad
• B. Footboard
• C. Trochanter roll
• D. Abduction pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

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