a healthcare provider orders a medication dose three times higher than usual what is the nurses first step
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A healthcare provider orders a medication dose three times higher than usual. What is the nurse's first step?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the dosage with the prescribing provider. When faced with an unusual medication dose, the nurse's initial action should be to confirm the order with the healthcare provider who prescribed it. This step is crucial to prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication without clarification, administering a lower dose without approval, or holding the medication without consulting the provider can all pose risks to the patient's well-being.

2. A nurse notices another nurse skipping hand hygiene. What is the appropriate course of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct hand hygiene is crucial for preventing the spread of infections and ensuring patient safety. When a nurse observes another healthcare worker skipping hand hygiene practices, it is essential to report this behavior to the supervisor. Reporting ensures that appropriate action is taken to address the issue and maintain a safe environment for patients. Ignoring the situation (Choice A) may compromise patient safety. Discussing the issue directly with the nurse (Choice C) may not always be effective in ensuring compliance. Doing nothing and continuing with patient care (Choice D) disregards the importance of infection control protocols.

3. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

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