Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient with an incision. Which actions will best indicate an understanding of medical and surgical asepsis for a sterile dressing change?

• A. Donning sterile gown and gloves to remove the wound dressing
• B. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and clean supplies for the new dressing
• C. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and sterile supplies for the new dressing
• D. Donning clean goggles, gown, and gloves to dress the wound

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. When performing a sterile dressing change, it is essential to use clean gloves to remove soiled dressings and sterile gloves and supplies for applying the new dressing. This helps maintain aseptic technique and reduce the risk of introducing pathogens to the wound. Choices A, B, and D involve incorrect use of sterile and clean supplies, which can compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection.

2. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
• B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
• C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
• D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.

3. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

4. A nurse manager assigns a task outside the scope of a nursing assistant. How should the assistant respond?

• A. Refuse the task and report it to the charge nurse.
• B. Perform the task without reporting.
• C. Ask another nurse to perform the task.
• D. Accept the task but document it later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a task is assigned that is outside the scope of a nursing assistant, it is essential for the assistant to refuse the task and report it to the charge nurse. This ensures that tasks are appropriately delegated, maintaining patient safety and adherence to professional standards. Performing the task without reporting can lead to potential risks for the patient and legal implications. Asking another nurse to perform the task may not address the issue of improper delegation. Accepting the task but documenting it later does not resolve the immediate concern of working within the assistant's scope of practice and seeking appropriate delegation.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Albumin level of 3
• B. Hemoglobin of 12
• C. Normal skin moisture
• D. No signs of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albumin level of 3. A low albumin level indicates poor nutrition, which can contribute to the development of pressure ulcers. Choice B, Hemoglobin of 12, is within the normal range and is not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Choice C, Normal skin moisture, does not provide specific information related to pressure ulcers. Choice D, No signs of infection, while important, is not a direct finding associated with pressure ulcers.

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