ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
- A. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
- C. Sodium 126 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 99 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.
2. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
3. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Pain
- C. Nausea
- D. Gag reflex
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.
4. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?
- A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
- B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
- C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
- D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.
5. During a home visit with an older adult client, a nurse should address which of the following observations to promote a safe environment?
- A. Loud volume of the television set
- B. Wall-to-wall carpet in the living room
- C. Low chairs without armrests
- D. Use of indirect lighting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low chairs without armrests. This observation should be addressed by the nurse to promote a safe environment for the older adult client. Low chairs without armrests increase the risk of falls as they can be challenging for older adults to sit down on or get up from. Addressing this issue can help prevent falls and promote safety. Choices A, B, and D are not as crucial for promoting a safe environment compared to the risk posed by low chairs without armrests.
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