ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
- A. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
- C. Sodium 126 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 99 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.
2. When a patient refuses to remove their religious jewelry before surgery, what is the best response for the nurse preparing for the procedure?
- A. Proceed with the surgery and document the refusal.
- B. Ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely.
- C. Tape the jewelry to the patient's body during surgery.
- D. Tell the patient they must remove the jewelry for safety reasons.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely. Hospital policy typically requires jewelry to be secured or removed to prevent interference during surgery. Proceeding with the surgery without addressing the issue or taping the jewelry to the patient's body are not safe practices and can lead to complications during the procedure. Directing the patient to remove the jewelry without exploring alternative solutions is not patient-centered care and may create unnecessary tension.
3. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?
- A. Speech-language pathologist
- B. Occupational therapist
- C. Dietitian
- D. Pharmacy technician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.
4. A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer the medication and monitor closely.
- B. Hold the medication and consult the pharmacist.
- C. Ask another nurse to verify the dose.
- D. Call the provider for clarification.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
- B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
- C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
- D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
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