Nursing Elites

1. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
• B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
• C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
• D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

2. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

• A. Lithium
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is exhibiting negative symptoms. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Apathy is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by a lack of interest or motivation. Negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, such as emotions, motivation, or socialization, rather than the presence of abnormal behaviors like hallucinations or delusions. Hallucinations (choice A) and delusions (choice B) are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors. Disorganized speech (choice D) is an example of a disorganized symptom, not a negative symptom.

4. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Rapid heart rate
• C. Sweating
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.

5. In a client's history, a significant indicator suggesting marginal coping skills and the need for careful risk assessment for violence is a history of

• A. childhood trauma.
• B. family involvement.
• C. academic problems.
• D. chemical dependence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A history of chemical dependence is a critical factor indicating marginal coping skills and the need for assessing the risk of violence. Substance abuse can impair judgment, increase impulsivity, and escalate the likelihood of violent behavior. It is essential to thoroughly evaluate and address substance abuse issues in clients to enhance treatment outcomes and ensure safety.

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