Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client has been NPO for 6 hours before the procedure.
• B. Administer pre-procedure medications as ordered.
• C. Verify that informed consent has been obtained.
• D. Assess the client for any allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client for allergies, particularly to iodine or shellfish, is crucial before a cardiac catheterization because the contrast dye used during the procedure can lead to allergic reactions. Identifying any allergies beforehand allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to prevent potential adverse reactions and ensure the client's safety.

2. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

3. When reviewing the provider's orders, a nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications in a client experiencing an exacerbation of asthma?

• A. Propranolol
• B. Theophylline
• C. Montelukast
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms due to its mechanism of action. It can cause bronchoconstriction, which is harmful for a client experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Theophylline, Montelukast, and Prednisone are commonly used in the treatment of asthma exacerbations and would not typically require clarification in this context.

4. A client has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Increase the wall suction.
• B. Strip the chest tube.
• C. Clamp the chest tube.
• D. Reposition the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a chest tube connected to wall suction complains of chest burning, it may indicate that the tube is irritating or compressing nearby tissues. Repositioning the client can help relieve this irritation by ensuring the tube is not kinked or pulling on the tissues. Increasing suction, stripping the tube, or clamping it are not appropriate actions and could potentially worsen the situation or cause harm.

5. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before each dose.
• B. Inspect your mouth for lesions daily.
• C. Do not use this medication to relieve an acute attack.
• D. Do not skip the morning dose even if symptom-free.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

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