Nursing Elites

1. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

2. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polyuria
• D. Oral candidiasis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid often used to manage asthma. One of the common adverse effects associated with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone is oral candidiasis, also known as thrush. This fungal infection can develop in the mouth and throat due to the steroid's local immunosuppressive effects. Patients should be advised to rinse their mouths after using inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral candidiasis. Monitoring for symptoms such as white patches, sore throat, or difficulty swallowing is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly.

3. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

4. When interviewing a client recently diagnosed with lung cancer and having a 60-pack-year smoking history, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Educate the client about the importance of quitting smoking to halt cancer progression.
• B. Encourage the client to disclose both tobacco and marijuana use openly.
• C. Maintain a nonjudgmental attitude to promote honest communication with the client.
• D. Provide realistic information about cancer treatment and prognosis without giving false hope.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a nonjudgmental attitude during the interview is crucial to create a safe environment where the client feels comfortable and open about disclosing their smoking history and other relevant information. This approach helps establish trust and facilitates an honest conversation which is essential for providing appropriate care and support to the client.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. The client is experiencing an aura.
• B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
• C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
• D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.

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