Nursing Elites

1. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patients skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems?

• A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Cool, clammy skin
• D. Acute flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: To assess a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. Diminished deep tendon reflexes may indicate high serum magnesium levels, as hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular effects. Tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and acute flank pain are not typically associated with high magnesium levels and are not priority assessments in this situation.

3. An increase in capillary blood pressure would tend to:

• A. increase interstitial fluid volume.
• B. increase plasma volume.
• C. decrease interstitial fluid volume.
• D. increase plasma volume and decrease interstitial fluid volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in capillary blood pressure leads to a higher force pushing fluid out of the capillaries into the interstitial space, thereby increasing interstitial fluid volume. Choice B is incorrect because capillary blood pressure affects the movement of fluid into the interstitial space, not into the plasma. Choice C is incorrect as an increase in capillary blood pressure would not decrease interstitial fluid volume. Choice D is incorrect as it combines contradictory effects when capillary blood pressure increases.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. . Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula
• B. Apply a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth.
• C. Administer 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously.
• D. Administer 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

5. A patient is in the hospital with heart failure. The nurse notes during the evening assessment that the patient's neck veins are distended and the patient has dyspnea. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the patient in low Fowler's position and notify the physician.
• B. Increase the patient's IV fluid and auscultate the lungs.
• C. Place the patient in semi-Fowler's position and prepare to give the PRN diuretic as ordered.
• D. Discontinue the patient's IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of distended neck veins and dyspnea indicate fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Placing the patient in semi-Fowler's position helps with respiratory effort and administering diuretics, as ordered, can assist in reducing fluid volume. Placing the patient in low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not be as effective in improving breathing. Increasing IV fluid (Choice B) is contraindicated in fluid overload conditions. Discontinuing the IV (Choice D) is not the immediate intervention needed to address the symptoms of fluid overload.

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