Nursing Elites

1. A client at risk for developing hyperkalemia states, 'I love fruit and usually eat it every day, but now I can't because of my high potassium level.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Potatoes and avocados can be substituted for fruit.
• B. If you cook the fruit, the amount of potassium will be lower.
• C. Berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are low in potassium.
• D. You are correct. Fruit is very high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are indeed low in potassium, making them suitable choices for someone at risk for hyperkalemia. Choice A is incorrect because potatoes and avocados are high in potassium and should be avoided in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because cooking fruit does not significantly lower its potassium content. Choice D is incorrect as it provides incorrect information, as not all fruits are very high in potassium.

2. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patient's plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patient's health?

• A. Nutritional status
• B. Potassium balance
• C. Calcium balance
• D. Fluid volume status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the specific gravity in a patient with SIADH helps the nurse evaluate the patient's fluid volume status. Specific gravity indicates the concentration of solutes in the urine and can detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or excess. Nutritional status, potassium balance, and calcium balance are not directly assessed through specific gravity testing. Nutritional status is typically evaluated through dietary intake and anthropometric measurements. Potassium balance is assessed through blood tests and ECG monitoring. Calcium balance is evaluated through blood tests and bone density scans. Therefore, the correct answer is assessing fluid volume status through specific gravity testing.

3. You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperchloremia
• D. Hypophosphatemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?

• A. Leave the hair intact
• B. Shave the area.
• C. Clip the hair in the area.
• D. Remove the hair with a depilatory.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. When selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter, the nurse should:

• A. Choose a proximal site.
• B. Choose a distal site.
• C. Have the patient hold their arm in a dependent position.
• D. Leave the tourniquet on for no longer than 2 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When selecting a site for insertion of an IV catheter, the nurse should choose a distal site, not a proximal site. Opting for a distal site ensures that upper veins remain available for future cannulations. Instructing the patient to hold their arm in a dependent position can enhance blood flow, aiding in the procedure. It is crucial never to leave a tourniquet on for more than 2 minutes as prolonged restriction can lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect because a proximal site is not preferred for IV insertion. Choice C is incorrect as having the patient hold their arm over their head is not necessary and may impede proper blood flow. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the tourniquet on for at least 5 minutes is excessive and can be harmful.

Similar Questions