which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

2. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.

3. People at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions include:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors like polypharmacy, changes in metabolism, and physiological changes associated with aging. Infants are less likely to be exposed to a wide range of medications, reducing their risk. People with diabetes and women of childbearing age may have specific nutrient needs or considerations, but they are not typically at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

5. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

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