Nursing Elites

1. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

2. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

3. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?

• A. The amylase and lipase serum levels are decreased
• B. The white blood cell count (WBC) is decreased
• C. The conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin levels are decreased
• D. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) serum level is decreased

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are enzymes specifically related to pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. White blood cell count (WBC), choices C and D, are not direct markers for pancreatitis improvement. Bilirubin levels, choice C, are more related to liver function rather than pancreatitis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, choice D, is a marker for kidney function, not pancreatitis.

4. The nurse is planning to provide education about foods containing thiamine to a group of clients. Which food high in thiamine should the nurse include?

• A. Fish
• B. Pork
• C. Beef
• D. Eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pork. Pork is high in thiamine, which is important for preventing thiamine deficiency. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and metabolism. While fish, beef, and eggs are nutritious foods, they are not as high in thiamine as pork. Fish is more commonly known for its omega-3 fatty acids, beef for its iron content, and eggs for being a good source of protein and other nutrients.

5. Which of the following is a potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

• A. Stomach irritation and bleeding
• B. Stomatitis and esophagitis
• C. Impaired folate absorption
• D. Increased potassium excretion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause stomach irritation and bleeding due to their effects on gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (Choice B) are not typically associated with NSAID use. While NSAIDs may affect renal function, leading to fluid retention and edema, they do not directly cause increased potassium excretion (Choice D). Impaired folate absorption (Choice C) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.

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