a patient with crohns disease is experiencing diarrhea which dietary recommendation is appropriate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn’s disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

2. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.

3. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

4. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

5. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

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