ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?
- A. Pulling the curtain around the client’s bed while changing a dressing
- B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
- C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.
2. The nurse is caring for the client one day postoperative sigmoid colostomy operation. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Change the infusion rate of the intravenous fluid
- B. Encourage the client to discuss his or her feelings
- C. Administer opioid narcotic medications for pain management
- D. Assist the client out of bed to sit in the chair twice daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to sit in a chair is an essential nursing intervention postoperatively as it helps promote circulation, prevent complications like blood clots, and aids in the recovery process. Changing the infusion rate of intravenous fluid (Choice A) requires a physician's order and is not an independent nursing intervention. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is important for emotional support but not as crucial as physical care immediately postoperatively. Administering opioid narcotic medications (Choice C) for pain management should be based on a prescribed schedule and assessment rather than being an independent nursing action.
3. The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?
- A. Assist the client in ambulating
- B. Assess the client's bilateral pedal pulses
- C. Maintain a continuous IV heparin drip
- D. Provide clear liquids to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is essential in this situation as it helps in evaluating the peripheral perfusion and circulation in the lower extremities. This assessment is crucial to detect any signs of decreased blood flow or complications, such as arterial occlusion or thrombosis. Ambulating the client may be important in the postoperative period, but assessing pedal pulses takes priority to ensure adequate perfusion. Maintaining continuous IV heparin drip is not typically indicated immediately post-operatively for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, as the risk of bleeding complications may outweigh the benefits. Providing a clear liquid diet is not a priority nursing intervention at this stage, as the focus should be on vascular assessment and postoperative monitoring.
4. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
- A. The pancreas
- B. The adrenal cortex
- C. The adrenal medulla
- D. The anterior pituitary gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.
5. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access