Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.

3. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

4. Participating in the development of long-term and preventive health goals with the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Planning. Planning in nursing care involves setting long-term and preventive goals for the patient in collaboration with the patient and their family. This step ensures that a comprehensive and individualized care plan is developed. Choice A, Evaluation, comes after the interventions have been implemented to assess their effectiveness. Choice C, Implementation, is the step where the care plan is put into action. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data to identify the patient's needs, which is done before planning the care.

5. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

• A. Preoccupation with calories
• B. Thick body hair
• C. Sore tongue
• D. Dry, brittle hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.

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