Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

2. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

3. Infection or inflammation of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon is known as:

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Cholelithiasis
• D. Cholecystitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diverticulitis refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is the condition of having diverticula without inflammation. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are related to the gallbladder and not the colon, making them incorrect in this context.

4. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Low-residue diet
• C. High-fat diet
• D. High-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn’s disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

5. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the patient's needs, resources, and desired outcomes. It includes organizing and coordinating care activities to achieve the identified goals. Therefore, determining nursing care priorities is a key aspect of the planning phase.\n Incorrect Rationales:\n- Evaluation (Choice A) comes after implementing the care plan to assess the effectiveness of interventions and make necessary adjustments.\n- Implementation (Choice C) is the phase where the care plan is put into action, involving carrying out the nursing interventions designed during the planning phase.\n- Assessment (Choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process where data about the patient's health status is collected and analyzed to identify needs and formulate a care plan. It precedes planning and determining care priorities.

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