Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention when a client goes into ventricular tachycardia is to assess for a pulse. This is crucial as the presence or absence of a pulse guides subsequent actions. Initiating chest compressions or calling a code should only be done after confirming the absence of a pulse. Continuing to monitor the client without checking for a pulse delays potentially life-saving interventions.

3. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

5. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the identified patient needs, establishing goals, and developing a plan of care. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, implementation is the phase where the care plan is carried out, and assessment is the initial step of collecting data to identify the patient's needs. Therefore, in the context of determining nursing care priorities, the correct step is Planning (choice B).

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