Nursing Elites

1. What is the FIRST step in providing health care for a patient?

• A. Obtain and interpret vital signs
• B. Determine the needs of the patient
• C. Develop a plan of care
• D. Obtain lab work and x-rays

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in providing health care for a patient is to determine the needs of the patient. Understanding the patient's requirements, concerns, and medical history is crucial before proceeding with any further steps. Option A, 'Obtain and interpret vital signs,' may be necessary but typically follows assessing the patient's needs. Option C, 'Develop a plan of care,' comes after identifying the patient's needs. Option D, 'Obtain lab work and x-rays,' is usually done based on the patient's needs and the developed plan of care, making it a later step in the process.

2. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

4. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

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