what is the commz level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

2. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure that military personnel remain healthy and fit for duty to preserve the Army's fighting strength. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department, which is focused on the health and readiness of the military forces, rather than performing annual physical examinations, responding to disasters, or providing education and training.

3. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

4. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

5. Under what circumstances can personal health information be disclosed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed under specific circumstances such as compliance with legal proceedings, for research purposes in limited situations, and to a family member or significant other in emergencies. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because it encompasses all the situations where disclosure of personal health information is permissible. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual scenarios where disclosure can occur, but the comprehensive answer is that personal health information can be disclosed in all these situations, not just one or two.

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