Nursing Elites

1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

2. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

5. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?

• A. Specimen is collected after meals
• B. The nurse puts the clingiest tablet into a test tube
• C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
• D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading.

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