ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?
- A. FSB
- B. CSH
- C. GH
- D. FH
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.
2. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.
3. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles?
- A. Patient holding squad
- B. Surgical squad
- C. Ambulance squad
- D. Area support squad
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Ambulance squad.' The Ambulance Squad is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles, making it the module described in the question. Choice A, 'Patient holding squad,' is incorrect as it does not match the composition specified. Choice B, 'Surgical squad,' is incorrect as it focuses on surgical rather than general medical support. Choice D, 'Area support squad,' is incorrect as it does not align with the composition of four specialists and two vehicles.
4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
- A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
- B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
- C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
- D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.
5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.
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