ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
- A. High-protein
- B. High-carbohydrate
- C. Low-protein
- D. Low-fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.
2. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt
- B. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen
- C. Tenderness around the surgical site during palpation
- D. Complaints of chills and feeling feverish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. This finding suggests a systemic response to infection, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Options A, B, and C are common postoperative findings and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
3. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action, which includes safeguarding the patient's and their family's rights and privacy. Evaluation (choice A) involves reviewing the effectiveness of the care plan, Planning (choice B) is the phase where the care plan is developed, and Assessment (choice D) is the initial step where data about the patient is collected.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.
5. The nurse is teaching the client with peripheral vascular disease. Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Keep the area between the toes dry.
- B. Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes.
- C. Cut toenails straight across.
- D. A,B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry to prevent moisture-related skin issues and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes to prevent injury and promote circulation. Cutting toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, but in this case, an arch cut can lead to injury. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making option D the most appropriate answer. Choice C is incorrect in this context.
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