Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes dirty
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with Listerine before collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.

3. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

4. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?

• A. Ensure that each soldier receives a physical examination each year
• B. Provide health care to areas of the U.S. declared disaster zones by the President
• C. Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength
• D. Offer medical, dental, and veterinary education and training

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure the overall health and readiness of military personnel. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department. While providing physical examinations, healthcare in disaster areas, and education/training are important aspects, the central mission is to uphold the health and combat readiness of the Army.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

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