ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires immediate intervention?
- A. The adolescent complains of his scrotum aching after exercise. The nurse palpates a worm-like mass above the testes.
- B. The nurse noted unilateral breast enlargement.
- C. The child’s scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated. The nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass.
- D. The child’s scrotum appears enlarged and red. The nurse palpated a thickened and swollen spermatic cord.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because a swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition requires immediate intervention to prevent testicular damage. Choices A, B, and C do not present findings that suggest a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
2. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Antacids
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- D. Antihistamines
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.
3. Infection or inflammation of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon is known as:
- A. Diverticulosis
- B. Diverticulitis
- C. Cholelithiasis
- D. Cholecystitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diverticulitis refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is the condition of having diverticula without inflammation. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are related to the gallbladder and not the colon, making them incorrect in this context.
4. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
- C. Aplastic anemia
- D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.
5. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
- A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of milk."
- B. "I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast."
- C. "I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee."
- D. "I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.
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