Nursing Elites

1. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

• A. Preparation
• B. Training
• C. Mobilization
• D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.

2. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?

• A. Keep hand receipts up to date
• B. Establish requirements
• C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
• D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish requirements. In the procurement process, the initial step involves determining and establishing the requirements for the supplies and equipment needed. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire procurement process by outlining the specific needs and specifications. Choice A, 'Keep hand receipts up to date,' is not the first step but rather a later administrative task. Choice C, 'Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels,' comes after establishing requirements. Choice D, 'Properly receive, inspect, and store required items,' is the final step in the procurement process, focusing on the physical receipt and handling of the procured items.

3. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.

4. Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

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