Nursing Elites

1. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Hold the medication
• B. Administer the digoxin
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Recheck the apical rate in 1 hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the digoxin. An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly prescribed for heart failure in newborns to help improve cardiac function. Holding the medication or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the heart rate is normal for a newborn. Rechecking the apical rate in 1 hour is not needed since the heart rate is within the expected range.

2. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s vital signs
• B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
• C. Begin iced saline lavage
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

4. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

• A. Army Nurse Corps officer
• B. First Sergeant
• C. E6, E7, or E8
• D. E3, E4, or E5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

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