ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action, which includes safeguarding the patient's and their family's rights and privacy. Evaluation (choice A) involves reviewing the effectiveness of the care plan, Planning (choice B) is the phase where the care plan is developed, and Assessment (choice D) is the initial step where data about the patient is collected.
2. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?
- A. Antacids
- B. Certain antibiotics
- C. Cholesterol-lowering medications
- D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.
3. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?
- A. It contains short-term goals
- B. It is developed by the patient's physician
- C. It must be continually evaluated
- D. It contains long-range goals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate needs. Choice C is also accurate as nursing plans of care need to be continually evaluated and updated to ensure they are effective. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can contain long-range goals to provide a roadmap for the patient's overall care and recovery.
4. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges
- B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
- C. Make sure the client is all right
- D. Increase the joules and re-discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.
5. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
- A. Army Nurse Corps officer
- B. First Sergeant
- C. E6, E7, or E8
- D. E3, E4, or E5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.
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