ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
- A. Protein
- B. Sodium
- C. Cholesterol
- D. Fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
- B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
- C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
- D. A, B, and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.
4. The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals
- B. Explain the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods
- C. Teach the client how to perform gentle perianal care
- D. Encourage the client to see a psychologist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choosing option B, explaining the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods, is the correct intervention to reduce IBS symptoms. Flatus-forming foods can worsen bloating and discomfort in individuals with IBS. Option A, instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals, may be helpful for other conditions but is not a primary intervention for IBS. Option C, teaching perianal care, is not directly related to reducing IBS symptoms. Option D, encouraging the client to see a psychologist, may be beneficial for managing stress related to IBS but is not the initial intervention to reduce symptoms.
5. The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous antibiotics
- B. Apply warm moist packs every two hours
- C. Elevate the right foot on two pillows
- D. Teach the client about skin and foot care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this scenario. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics to prevent its spread and potential complications. While warm moist packs and elevation can be beneficial as adjunct measures, they are not the initial priority. Teaching about skin and foot care is important, but it can be addressed after stabilizing the acute condition with antibiotics.
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