ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?
- A. Urine dipstick for glucose
- B. Oral glucose tolerance test
- C. Fasting blood glucose level
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.
2. An active 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is being seen in the endocrine clinic. Which finding may indicate the need for a change in therapy?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C level 6.2%
- B. Blood pressure 146/88 mmHg
- C. Heart rate at rest 58 beats/minute
- D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level 65 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a young adult with type 1 diabetes, a blood pressure of 146/88 mmHg may indicate the need for a change in therapy as it is above the recommended target levels. High blood pressure can increase the risk of cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate the need for an immediate change in therapy. A Hemoglobin A1C level of 6.2% is generally considered good control for a diabetic patient, a resting heart rate of 58 beats/minute is normal for an active individual, and an HDL level of 65 mg/dL is considered to be in the desirable range for heart health.
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of cultural humility in nursing?
- A. A fixed set of cultural competencies
- B. Recognizing and addressing power imbalances
- C. Adapting care to fit different cultural contexts
- D. Learning from patients and adapting to their needs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cultural humility in nursing is about approaching patient care with an open mind, being willing to learn from patients, and adapting to their individual needs. Choice A is incorrect as cultural humility is not about a fixed set of competencies, but rather an ongoing process of self-reflection and learning. Choice B, recognizing and addressing power imbalances, is related to cultural competence but not the core concept of cultural humility. Choice C, adapting care to fit different cultural contexts, is more aligned with cultural competence rather than cultural humility.
4. A new manager is implementing an initiative with the desired outcome of having the unit run more smoothly. What quality is the manager demonstrating?
- A. Being unrealistic
- B. Being a change agent
- C. Being democratic
- D. Being authoritarian
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Being a change agent. The manager is demonstrating the quality of being a change agent by implementing an initiative aimed at improving the unit's operations. A change agent initiates and drives changes to enhance effectiveness and efficiency within the unit. Choice A is incorrect because the manager's actions are not described as unrealistic but rather proactive. Choice C, being democratic, is incorrect as it does not relate to the manager's initiative to improve unit operations. Choice D, being authoritarian, is also incorrect as the manager is not described as enforcing changes through strict control and power.
5. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?
- A. Assess an applicant's motivation
- B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
- C. Assess an applicant's skills
- D. Assess an applicant's ability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access