Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Loratadine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. The combination of Warfarin, an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding complications. Clients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options such as acetaminophen. Diphenhydramine and loratadine are antihistamines and are generally safe to use with Warfarin as they do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen.

2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.

3. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bevacizumab is known to potentially cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to detect and manage any elevations effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bevacizumab is not typically associated with causing hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or hypocalcemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is the priority in this case.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Simvastatin, which instruction should be included?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication in the morning.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Simvastatin is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Simvastatin, leading to increased blood levels of the drug and a higher risk of adverse effects such as muscle pain and liver damage. It is important to educate the client about this potential interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Simvastatin with food or in the morning and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specifically related to the safe use of Simvastatin. Avoiding grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent drug interactions.

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