a nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

2. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

3. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

4. To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.

5. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

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