a nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

2. When educating a client who has a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism, which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken first thing in the morning before eating to ensure optimal absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach helps prevent interactions with food or other medications that may decrease its effectiveness. It is important to follow this timing recommendation to maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels in the body. Choice B is incorrect as taking Levothyroxine at bedtime may lead to inconsistent absorption and affect its efficacy. Choice C is incorrect because taking Levothyroxine with food can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect as Levothyroxine should be taken with a full glass of water, not milk, to aid in proper absorption.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. A client has a new prescription for metronidazole. The client should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing. Alcohol can interact with metronidazole and lead to adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not typically contraindicated with metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole, unlike alcohol.

5. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

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