Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

2. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

• A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
• B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
• C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
• D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

3. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

4. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
• B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
• C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
• D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.

5. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

• A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion
• B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hours
• C. Minimizing tourniquet time
• D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

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