Nursing Elites

1. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

3. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

4. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Visual disturbances
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.

5. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

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