ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hemorrhagic stroke
- B. Thromboembolic stroke
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.
2. When a client has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, what adverse effect should they monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Anxiety
- C. Sedation
- D. Palpitations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can lead to sedation as an adverse effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness when taking this medication to prevent any potential harm. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated with Dextromethorphan use. While some individuals may experience gastrointestinal upset, central nervous system effects like sedation are more commonly observed.
3. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?
- A. Headache
- B. Constipation
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Dysuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.
4. A client has a new prescription for Enfuvirtide to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Bone marrow suppression
- B. Pancreatitis
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Bone marrow suppression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While bone marrow suppression is not typically associated with Enfuvirtide, a more relevant concern is the risk of severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis. Enfuvirtide, an HIV fusion inhibitor, can cause local injection site reactions and systemic allergic responses. Monitoring for signs of allergic reactions, such as rash, fever, and difficulty breathing, is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
5. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.
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