ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Bilateral equal pupil size
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Niacin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Fluoroquinolones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.
3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, and tingling sensations is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia, neutropenia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with vincristine therapy.
5. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?
- A. Heparin
- B. Insulin
- C. Propranolol
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.
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