Nursing Elites

1. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. In gouty arthritis, the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the affected joint is caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to the accumulation and subsequent crystallization of urate crystals. Choice A, destruction of proteoglycans, is incorrect as it is not directly related to the crystallization process in gouty arthritis. Choice C, overexcretion of uric acid, is incorrect because gout is primarily associated with underexcretion or decreased excretion of uric acid rather than overexcretion. Choice D, increased absorption of uric acid, is also incorrect as the primary issue in gouty arthritis is the body's inability to properly eliminate uric acid.

2. When assessing a 7-year-old child's pain after an emergency appendectomy, what is the most appropriate tool for the nurse to use?

• A. Use a visual analog scale (VAS) to assess the pain.
• B. Ask the child to rate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. Use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the pain.
• D. Ask the parents to describe the child's pain behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the child's pain. This scale is specifically designed for children and uses facial expressions of varying intensities to help them communicate their pain levels effectively. Choices A and B may not be as suitable for a young child who may have difficulty understanding or using a numerical scale. Choice D involving parents may not provide an accurate reflection of the child's pain experience, as it is essential to assess the child's self-reporting.

3. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:

• A. excessive sedation
• B. bowel ischemia
• C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
• D. mild hypothermia postoperatively

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Rheumatoid arthritis
• B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• C. Psoriatic arthritis
• D. Dermatomyositis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.

5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Brain tumor
• C. Cerebral infarction
• D. Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

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